PCC Field Medical Training Battalion – West (FMTB-W) Block 4 Practice Test

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• Which statement best reflects analgesia options in field trauma care?
• For a penetrating chest wound, why is an occlusive dressing taped on three sides?
• Which sequence best describes bleeding control in the field?
• A patient has a heart rate of 136 beats per minute. Which of the following is NOT a potential cause?
• Which airway adjunct is contraindicated if basal skull fracture is suspected?
• What is the initial field management for burns?
• Which of the following should be recorded on a casualty care record in the field?
• Which wound type is best described as a tearing away of tissue?
• Which option is NOT one of the 6 P's?
• Which information indicates evacuation status on a casualty care record?
• What is the role of blood products in austere field care, and when should they be used?
• Which factors influence the timing of MEDEVAC in a battlefield scenario?
• Role 1 refers to what can be carried or is available in mission-specific transportation platforms (MRAP, AAV, LAR, etc.).
• In burn management, a casualty with a TBSA greater than what percentage should prompt resuscitation to prevent complications?
• A burn patient weighs 220 pounds and has a TBSA of 30%. What is the resuscitation rate?
• What are essential steps in field wound management before evacuation?
• How should analgesia dosing be determined in the field?
• In a febrile, hypotensive patient, which of the following injuries is NOT typically considered a sign that would prompt sepsis evaluation?
• Which airway adjunct is preferred for conscious or semi-conscious patients when oral access is compromised?
• In the field, how should a casualty with an open globe injury be managed?
• An escharotomy is indicated for burns when the six 'P's are present. Which of the following is not one of the six 'P's?
• How should spinal injuries be managed during casualty handling and movement?
• Where are junctional bleeds typically located?
• If bleeding persists after direct pressure and a hemostatic dressing, which device should be applied?
• During PCC nursing care, a patient has BP 100/50, HR 110, temp 101.6 F, RR mid 20s, requires frequent dressing changes, and reports constant 8/10 pain. What is the patient's status and the appropriate head-to-toe assessment frequency?
• In START triage, which color tag corresponds to immediate (life-threatening) injuries?
• What is the key strategy to prevent hypothermia in a trauma patient on the battlefield?
• Which sign indicates a tourniquet may have been left on too long?
• Why are combined injuries (such as blast injuries with shrapnel) particularly challenging in the field?
• How should a casualty with suspected spinal injuries be evacuated?
• Which finding does NOT indicate adequate fluid resuscitation and end-organ perfusion?
• Which statement correctly lists the three phases of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) and what each focuses on?
• As the PCC team lead on deployment, which two requirements are critical to ensure nursing care is scheduled appropriately and divided amongst the care team?
• Which of the following is a sign of wound infection?
• How are hemostatic dressings used in the field and when should they be chosen over direct pressure alone?
• Which hemostatic method is commonly used for non-compressible bleeds in combat?
• How should an occlusive dressing be applied for a sucking chest wound?
• What does the Glasgow Coma Scale measure and when is it used in the field?
• Which of the following are common signs of shock that a medic should recognize?
• The instruction requires reassessment after a fixed duration following starting ventilation.
• What is an effective method for moving a casualty quickly if spinal injury is not suspected?
• This technique is best classified as which type of ventilation?
• What is the general field approach to suspected toxic ingestion?
• List classic signs of a tension pneumothorax in a casualty.
• What are potential downsides of prolonged spinal immobilization in the field?
• During the field secondary survey, which element is specifically assessed?
• Which vital sign in the 24-hour post-injury patient described earlier is most concerning for shock?
• Which action is NOT part of the puncture wound management with contaminated debris?
• What is the field resuscitation principle for hemorrhagic trauma?
• Which statement best reflects the effect of proper nursing interventions on patient outcomes according to the material?
• Which item is specifically listed as part of a Medic's medical readiness in a deployed environment?
• How should heat illness be differentiated in the field?
• When should tetanus prophylaxis be given in combat injuries?
• How many principles exist in PCC?
• In frostbite management, what is a risk of rewarming if there is active refreezing risk?
• Which set of findings correctly lists the 6 P's of compartment syndrome?
• Trending vital signs can help identify which of the following?
• What is the recommended order of operations for field trauma assessment using the ABCDE approach?
• What is the primary source of resupply?
• In the tourniquet application sequence, which step comes immediately after securing the tourniquet tightly?
• What is the purpose of leaving one side of an occlusive dressing loose when treating a sucking chest wound?
• During Tactical Field Care (TFC), where is casualty care provided?
• In austere field environments, how should wound irrigation be performed to best remove debris?
• Distinguish between oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) in field care, including contraindications.
• Within the ABCDE trauma assessment framework, which component addresses airway management and patency?
• If the IV rate is 100 mL/hr with a 15 gtt/mL drop factor, what is the gtt/min rate?
• What is the recommended approach to evacuating a casualty with a suspected spinal injury?
• How should frostbite be managed in the field?
• Which burn pattern carries the greatest risk for burn-induced hypovolemic shock in a patient with multiple burns?
• Which action by a care team member indicates they may need additional instructions?
• When is a tourniquet indicated in the field, and what must be documented after applying it?
• What are the components of the Primary Survey in field trauma care?
• What TBSA percentage defines the threshold for initiating resuscitation to minimize complications?
• What is the purpose of medical logistics to FMTB-W missions?
• The rate described for bag-valve mask ventilation corresponds to how many breaths per minute?
• Which of the following casualty handoff items includes all essential information for evacuation?
• In the MARCH protocol, which element is the first priority?
• Following Ketamine administration, which antiemetic option and dose is appropriate?
• Which action is not recommended in open globe injury management?
• What does SAMPLE stand for in casualty history taking?
• What is the primary purpose of analgesia in the field, and which medications are commonly used per protocol?
• A burn patient has urine output of 230 mL in the past 4 hours. What action should be taken with the IV fluid rate?
• Which practice helps prevent DVT in an unconscious patient by moving the legs regularly?
• Which of the following should be considered when planning a field MEDEVAC besides location and casualties?
• A definitive airway is secured below the level of which anatomical structure?
• TBSA stands for what in burn assessment?
• In START triage, which color tag indicates a patient is deceased or expectant?
• Which device is used for hemorrhage control in junctional areas where a tourniquet cannot be applied?
• The ABCs of airway management in this context emphasize which action?
• For IV lines that are not being used, flush saline locks with 10 mL of NS at least every 24 hours. This statement is:
• The guidance presented is most consistent with attempting to manage air exchange in a trauma patient with suspected brain injury.
• Why is it important to check distal pulses when immobilizing a limb?
• What device is used specifically for hemorrhage control in junctional areas where a tourniquet cannot be applied?
• What is the correct chest wound management to prevent tension pneumothorax?
• Calculate the rate in drips per minute (gtt/min) for an infusion of 150 mL/hr with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL.
• What is the first priority when arriving on a casualty scene?
• Which warming measures help prevent hypothermia in the field?
• Why are prophylactic antibiotics used for certain battlefield wounds?
• When utilizing the VC3 guide, everything should be included to the physician except:
• Why is rapid decontamination emphasized in CBRN incidents?
• Why is permissive hypotension sometimes used in battlefield hemorrhagic shock?
• Cushing's Triad is defined by which combination of signs?
• Role 1, also known as 'house', is the designation for which part of the mission?
• The team lead's decision to continue care despite a teammate's wish to kill a prisoner demonstrates which ethical principle?
• How should a casualty be decontaminated after suspected CBRN exposure?
• Why is it important to minimize movement of casualties with suspected spinal injury?
• What is the primary objective of rapid cooling in heat stroke management in the field?
• In an unconscious casualty without suspected basal skull fracture, which airway adjunct is preferred?
• What is the GCS score for a casualty who is speaking in random words, pulls away from pain, and opens his eyes only to spoken words?
• What is the correct approach to an open abdomen or eviscerated organs in the field?
• What are the key features and indications for using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) with oxygen in the field?
• Which of the following actions helps maintain casualty care readiness in austere operations?
• In PCC care of an unconscious patient, performing foot pumps, ankle circles, and leg raises is intended to be done at what interval to prevent which condition?
• Differentiate CASEVAC and MEDEVAC and how this affects casualty care in the field.
• In Tactical Combat Casualty Care, what does MARCH stand for?
• What is the purpose of sealing a chest wound with a three-sided occlusive dressing?
• In Tactical Combat Casualty Care, what is the correct MARCH priority order?
• Which statement correctly describes the priority during field transport of a patient with suspected spinal injury?
• Which airway adjunct is used for unconscious patients with no gag reflex?
• A patient from the field has burns to the anterior/posterior of both legs and the anterior right arm. What is the priority intervention?
• What solution is commonly used to irrigate wounds in the field?
• Which action best aligns with immediate management for a patient with abdominal evisceration after injury?
• Why is hypothermia a concern in trauma care and what steps help prevent it in the field?
• Which of the following signs is consistent with hypovolemic shock in a trauma casualty?
• In battlefield wound care, high-volume irrigation primarily serves to accomplish which outcome?
• Which are the three phases of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC)?
• In field triage, which tool is used to quickly determine a casualty's level of consciousness?
• How to distinguish heat stroke from heat exhaustion and initial management?
• After applying direct pressure and a hemostatic agent, what is the next step to control bleeding on an extremity?
• Cushing's Triad presents with all of the following, except:
• In open fracture with visible bone, which sequence of actions is recommended in the field?
• Which clinical scenario is described by the instruction?
• Which of the following is NOT a goal of end-of-life care?
• How long should you continue bag-valve mask ventilation before reassessing in this scenario?
• In this protocol, what is the role of 3% hypertonic saline?
• In battlefield evacuation decisions, which factor drives prioritization?
• Which item should be included when requesting MEDEVAC in the field?
• Which of the following best describes a core focus of end-of-life care?
• What is the purpose of an after-action review (AAR) following a medical incident in training?
• In the care plan for a patient with bilateral lower-extremity amputations, which intervention would not be necessary?
• Myoglobin release in rhabdomyolysis damages which organ?
• What is the recommended approach to an open fracture with visible bone in the field?
• What is the significance of the golden hour in battlefield medicine?
• What is explicitly specified about the timing in the ventilation plan?
• What is the primary goal of mass casualty triage in the field?
• Where is the recommended needle decompression site for adults?
• What are the four basic wound types commonly seen in battlefield injuries?
• What is the primary airway management action described?
• How should suspected heat illness be managed in the field?
• During a MACE 2 exam on a suspected TBI patient, who develops a severe headache and vomiting, which action should be avoided?
• Tea-colored urine in a crush injury most strongly suggests risk of which complication?
• What does the notation A&O x3 indicate about a patient’s orientation?
• When resources are limited, how should triage decisions be guided?
• In a field setting, which statement best reflects proper pediatric triage in a mass casualty?
• Which practice helps maintain a Medic's readiness in a deployed environment through continual training?
• What is the drop rate in gtt/min for an infusion at 100 mL/hr with a 10 gtt/mL drip chamber?
• What is the first action to take if a casualty is suspected of CBRN exposure?
• In the DOPE approach to airway management, which action targets obstruction?
• What is the first action to control life-threatening external bleeding on the battlefield?
• In what situation should a cricothyrotomy be considered, and who should perform it?
• What is the purpose of an occlusive chest dressing taped on three sides?
• After 24 hours of fluid resuscitation for a burn patient, a well-resuscitated patient will show all of the following except: Bradycardia ranging 50-60 bpm
• If basal skull fracture is suspected, which airway adjunct is preferred to avoid cranial injury?
• What is the correct sequence for applying a combat tourniquet?
• When assessing the GCS for a casualty with a cricothyroidotomy, the Verbal section should be annotated as?
• When treating a patient with a crush injury, which fluids can be used?
• How should an avulsed tooth be managed in the field until dental care is available?
• Which statement best summarizes the described action?
• Which statement correctly describes initial fluid resuscitation for crush syndrome?
• SpO2 is represented by a triangle on the PCC Flowsheet. Which statement is correct?
• Poikilothermia refers to the limb temperature doing what relative to the environment?
• How should limb injuries be immobilized before evacuation?
• Which START color indicates minimal injuries?
• Which finding is a red flag of abdominal trauma in the field?
• When should intraosseous (IO) access be used in the field?
• Where is needle thoracostomy performed in adults, and what are the alternative sites?
• What is the recommended initial trauma assessment framework used in the field?
• During wound care, which infection-control measures should be used together to minimize cross-contamination?
• In the abdominal evisceration scenario, the patient is described as being responsive to verbal stimuli. Which term best describes this mental status?
• What are the steps for eye irrigation after a chemical splash?
• What is the recommended method for transferring a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
• Which statement best describes the sequence of care in Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) phases?
• How can you interpret a narrow pulse pressure in a trauma patient?
• What PPE level is required for CBRN exposures, and why?
• What is the recommended approach to a puncture wound with contaminated debris?
• Within the ABCDE trauma assessment framework, what does the 'Disability' step primarily evaluate?
• A patient experiences nausea after Ketamine. Which medication and dose would be appropriate?
• Which vitals should be recorded on a casualty care record in the field?
• Which format is described as the best for providing information via telemedicine?
• If maintenance rate is 60 mL/hour with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL, what is the gtt/min?
• What is a key consideration when administering opioids for field analgesia?
• In the field, how should a suspected pelvic fracture be managed?
• Role 1, also known as 'house', is the designation for which element of the mission support site?
• Which of the following is an element contributing to a Medic's medical readiness in a deployed environment?
• Bradypnea can be caused by:
• Which asset includes trained medical personnel and equipment: CASEVAC or MEDEVAC?
• What is the purpose of administering 3% hypertonic saline in a patient with severe traumatic brain injury after a bolus?
• In a crush injury with tea-colored urine, what is an appropriate urine output target?
• For which scenario is a tourniquet indicated?
• If one breath occurs every 3 seconds, approximately how many breaths are delivered per minute?
• A patient 24 hours post-injury with abdominal evisceration and no massive hemorrhage presents with BP 92/54, HR 136, RR 24, SpO2 94%, Temp 103.4F. What is the next best action?
• In a trauma patient with significant hypotension after a fall, which type of shock is most suspected?
• What is the difference between CASEVAC and MEDEVAC?
• A Marine who is considered expectant receives IV morphine for pain control. After reassessment, he is anxious, breathing 22 breaths per minute, and crying. What is the next most appropriate action?
• A maintenance dose of 3% hypertonic saline after a 250 mL bolus is prescribed. If the maintenance rate is 50 mL/hour and the tubing has a drip factor of 15 gtt/mL, what is the drip rate in gtt/min?
• In a burn patient, which sign would most strongly indicate the need for an escharotomy?
• What is the purpose of a pelvic binder in battlefield trauma?
• What basic steps should be taken if a casualty is suspected of CBRN exposure?
• How should an open abdominal wound with exposed viscera be managed in the field?
• Which of the following is a typical example of a junctional bleed location?
• Which dressing is recommended for non-compressible bleeds in combat?
• Which of the following is not one of the six P's used to describe burn-related tissue perfusion?
• A patient with burns to the anterior torso and anterior of both legs weighs 200 pounds. What is the initial fluid rate?
• Which PPE combination is essential when there is potential blood exposure?
• When expressing IV flow rate, which unit is used?
• What is Psychological First Aid (PFA) and why is it important on the battlefield?
• In a patient with suspected severe traumatic brain injury and impending herniation, the initial ventilation step should be bagging at a rate of 1 breath every 3 seconds for 5 minutes before reassessment.
• What distinguishes a junctional bleed from a limb bleed?
• Why should you avoid applying ointments or ice during the initial burn management?
• A definitive airway is defined as any intervention that is below the level of the what?
• Proper nursing interventions, when conducted appropriately, help to greatly reduce the possibility of all of the following complications, except:
• Annex ______ is the medical services portion of the Operation Plan that provides a summary of medical threats, diseases, assets, and prophylactic measures.
• What considerations are unique to pediatric triage in mass casualty?
• Which of the following is NOT a potential complication from bag-valve mask ventilation?
• Which action is included in the initial field management for burns?
• In START triage, what does the red tag indicate?
• What PPE is standard for field trauma care to protect from hazards?
• Which term best describes the ventilation method used in this scenario?
• What is the recommended needle gauge and length for needle decompression of a suspected tension pneumothorax in the field?
• Which principle guides splinting of suspected fractures in the field?
• When using the DOPE framework to correct an ineffective airway adjunct, what action corresponds to the 'O' assessment?
• The described approach is intended for managing a patient at risk of which life-threatening event?
• Which setting is this ventilation approach most appropriate for?
• What is the general principle for antibiotic prophylaxis in open soft tissue injuries in austere settings?
• A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 or less generally indicates a severe head injury and requires what action?
• Which airway adjunct is contraindicated if a basal skull fracture is suspected?
• Which of the following would best indicate that a patient is not receiving adequate perfusion?
• Which item is assessed during the secondary survey to understand injury context?
• Which factor is NOT used to determine analgesia dosing in the field?
• What is the first component of the Primary Survey in field trauma care?